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Tabun
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« Reply #20 on: 2006-09-30, 03:30 »

A question in return, before I can even begin trying to solve that puzzle: Why would language have to be invented? And, if the origins of language would be called an 'invention', why would 'invention' in that case require thought?
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« Reply #21 on: 2006-09-30, 04:14 »

Quote from: Tabun
Why would language have to be invented?
Because no human language is spoken from birth.  All must be taught and learned.  There are no exceptions, unless you count the grunts, squeals, and cries of infants as language.  For clarity's sake, I'm referring to structured languages, like English and Dutch.

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And, if the origins of language would be called an 'invention', why would 'invention' in that case require thought?
You're seriously asking that as a question?  I think we can safely establish that inventions don't invent themselves.  Somebody has to think them up.  Case in point:  "Fo shizzle my nizzle, word?  You down wit' da bling-bling?"

And that's two questions you asked me.[/color]  Slipgate - Wink
« Last Edit: 2006-09-30, 04:16 by Phoenix » Logged


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« Reply #22 on: 2006-09-30, 08:47 »

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I can only interpret here that language is a necessary condition to learn to think. It also is a necessary condition for being able to verify that thought is indeed going on.

What I said wasn't something like that at all, or at least that's not what I meant.

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... and that reason is that we learn to think with language. If a person was to learn no language at all, that wouldn't stop him from thinking.


I think that when one person learns something, he/she tends to use that knowledge whenever he/she thinks it's right. If he/she learned to communicate with language, then he/she will use language to communicate, both with people and with him/herself. If you think about it ( :] ), thought is not a mere group of words that pop out from your head, but a mix of sounds, images and words. Thought cannot be erradicated just because we don't have language.

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Let's say that it is. What then, is this human nature?

If we look up "Human Nature" in Wikipedia, what pops up is:

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Human nature is the fundamental nature and substance of humans, as well as the range of human behavior that is believed to be invariant over long periods of time and across very different cultural contexts.

There is a wide-range of knowledge that we are born with. This knowledge, when grouped, constitutes the so-called "intelligence". Since we are all born with this knowledge, it is only rational to assume that this is part of the human nature, for it has never changed during all of this time.

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If we find someone unable to reason, to speak, to read, would you say that he or she was unhuman?

All of what you said are things that humans obtain during their lives (knowledge). If we find someone that can't perform any of those things, that doesn't make him/her unhuman, it does make him/her ignorant.
« Last Edit: 2006-09-30, 08:48 by [KruzadeR] » Logged

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« Reply #23 on: 2006-09-30, 16:33 »

I would say the question is, how are you defining "human"?  If you speak strictly from the biological sense, then only creatures that are biologically human could be called human.  That would be, in the classical sense, only "sons of Adam and daughters of Eve".  But can you be so sure?

Let's say someone is able to transmute one kind of living being into another.  Say he turned a man into a goat. Would the man-turned-goat no longer be human?  After all, he is now a goat.  But, if upon changing this goat back into a man, he retains all his previous characteristics of when he was human before, what do we call this creature then?  Is he not a man?  If, say, a man is born human, spends 50% of his life as a man, and 50% of his life as a goat, what is he?  Now on the flip side, if a goat is born, and is turned into a man, is this creature a man, or a goat?  If a man is turned into a goat, and dies as a goat, was he man or goat?  The same if the goat is turned into a man, and dies as a man, was he goat or man?

Let's say a man is born in this universe.  He lives, he dies, and his soul moves on to the next one and he is made into a new kind of creature by his maker.  Let's say this new kind of creature can assume any form it wishes, and has abilities men can only dream of, and can never die.  Now, let's step outside of time, and look at his whole existence, from when he was conceived, when he died, and when he became something else across this boundary we call death.  What is he?  Is he what he began as, or what he ended as?  If he lives forever in this new form, do we call him Man still, or do we call him what this new form is?  Was he this new form all along, and the shell of man merely like the caterpillar before it sprouts forth as a butterfly?  And if man ends at death, as some would think...  if beyond death is only void, then death you are, and never were to begin with, and so all of you are nothing since that is how you will end.  But, whether to glory or perdition, it matters not to man since man is concerned with temporal things, and so he calls a caterpillar a caterpillar, and a butterfly a butterfly, the living alive, and the dead he calls dead, though they really be the same all through regardless.

So what is human?  What is animal?  They are the same in the end, but do not begin the same.  What is it to be human?  The same as it is to be any creature.  It is to be born, and to live, and to die.  That is the simple truth of life, a truth men often forget in the arrogance of man's dominion of this world.  What, should man think so highly of himself?  Cheat death then if you be gods!  The grave will mock you in the end, as will the cremator's flames.  Like beasts you slaughter for food, you too will die and all your works swallowed in death.  Of what gain is it then to be human over being any other creature?  Of what use are lofty thoughts, or being puffed up and saying "behold, I think!"  Will death not claim you regardless?  Ten million years from now you will be as chaff on the wind, and your civilization will be as a cinder.  How then did it matter anything you thought or did?

Maybe trying to define what is or is not human isn't really as important in the cosmic scheme of things as what you do with that humanity.  Are we not all made from the same matter, fur and feather, skin and scale?  If from ashes we rise, to ashes again we fall.  That is the way of things.  Perhaps it would be wiser, or if nothing else, kinder then, to treat all living things with the care and reverence man would reserve for himself, be those things human or not.
« Last Edit: 2006-09-30, 16:35 by Phoenix » Logged


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« Reply #24 on: 2006-09-30, 17:44 »

Okay, this might get messy, so I'll split my post in two sections.

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Phoenix:
(this post addresses the previous post, not the last one -- the typing of this post was interrupted by a day's work outdoors Slipgate - Smile -- the last post is mostly metaphysical speculation, I think, and I don't see the connection -- I was not trying to make any claims about the grandure or moral implications of 'inhumanity', but, among other harmless things, comparing Kruzader's claims to the way we talk and feel about things generally)

I always like to throw in an extra question, to give more of an indication what I'm asking after. I didn't succeed at that this time, but it helped nonetheless.

i)
First, we can identify a definition-question in the usage of the term 'language'. In one interpretation, language is purely linked to structured words. In the other, all signs and all instances of communication are called language.
Personally, I hold the latter to be closer to the truth. Sign language is still language as is body-language, shouting "Hey!" or "Ouch!" is hardly 'structured', but I still consider them language-expressions. I will refer to the former as 'struct-language' or 'structured language', and to the latter as 'omni-language'.

Now, since in the latter interpretation the question is clearly less problematic, I'll see what happens when we adopt the first (and pretend that these are all the options), for now. We would then be talking about structured language, as you refer to.

ii)
My second question was actually very helpful to me this way, since we now see that there are two ways of thinking about acquiring language: (a) for the language-using race(s) as a whole, and (b) for each individual. The term invention made me picture a language as something 'invented' by the human race generally, like the wheel, or self-cleaning bread ovens. If that's an acceptable comparison for you, I wouldn't mind exploring that further.

We seem to be talking about (b), here. I wouldn't use the word 'invention' for that, since that sounds much like everyone is producing his own language, which afterwards magically appears to be understandable to all (much like everyone inventing their own capability to hear, or the like). Maybe 'learning to participate' in a pre-existing language would describe a more likely process?

On the other hand, the etymology of 'invention' doesn't suggest to me that it is something like that at all, or that thought is required for it. It doesn't suggest that inventions are necessarily a human product, like you'd think of in an 'invention of the typewriter' kind of sense. One can come upon the roundness of logs as a primitive wheel--invent it as such--and use it without thought, in a purely pragmatical way. As such, plant-life has invented photosynthesis. I don't see why it couldn't be that way, and why it couldn't be that way for language either.


-------------------------------------------
Kruzader:

i)
Here I see another definition-question arising, this time for 'thought'. Is instinct thought? Do birds think? Do you think, when you are dreaming? All this is pretty open to interpretation, if you ask me. If you have a specific idea, do tell. If not, I might have a suggestion.

But let me focus on something else instead.
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I think that when one person learns something, he/she tends to use that knowledge whenever he/she thinks it's right.
Okay. Learning is the acquiring of knowledge. The application of that knowledge is another matter, which is a prerequisite for using knowledge. Is this what you are saying? If not, please clarify.

If so, is it not true that we sometimes fail in our judgement, that we do not make the correct decision about what is right? Would you say we cannot learn to make the right decisions?

ii)
Your trust in Wikipedia is astonishing! I would sooner, if at all, trust a good dictionary, like Websters or Van Dale, when it comes to trusting a source like that. Even accepting this argumentum ad wikipediam (Slipgate - Wink), you can see two words popping up in the first sentence: 'fundamental' and 'substance'. Fundamental means it is the basic, underlying part (of human-ness). Substance, here (although its usage is rather vague) seems to indicate that human nature exists independently of other things. I don't see claims to support either, but alright.

Let's say I accept it as a substance, without further questions. If human nature is fundamental to human-ness (this is tautological in my reading of 'nature', as I will describe below), anything without it is not human. It misses the basic 'building blocks' to make a human. If you simply mean to restrict yourself to the part which you underlined, then we see that it is something that is believed to be the case. That is very nice, but it doesn't help me much. Also, how does this 'over long periods of time' work? If one holds to darwinism in any form, we see that extensively structured language is certainly not that long present in prehistoric humans. This is not a problem, if beings can only be called humans from that point when they somehow acquired language (and other parts which are believed to be widely present). But that brings me again to this nature as 'fundamental' to application of the predicate 'human'.

If I understand you correctly, ignorance cancels human nature out. Is that what you mean? As you say, someone is still human when not sharing in all the properties or faculties that are widely believed to be present. Yet then those minimal faculties are not part of human nature, or, human nature is not universally present, fundamental or essential to being human.

But, the nature of something is essential (tautologically) to what it is. The nature of a human being is what makes it a human being. That is my suggestion for proper usage of the term 'nature' (in this sense). Then, it is impossible for any human being to lack human nature and still be human.
So, these minimal faculties would require a different designator. Something like 'basic skills' or 'reasoning capacity', but I'll gladly leave finding a better term for them up to you, as I trust you know better what you speak of.

iii)
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Since we are all born with this knowledge
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This knowledge, when grouped, constitutes the so-called "intelligence". Since we are all born with this knowledge

That is nice! I doubt though, again keeping in mind the poor sods that don't seem to have been born with such talents as we have, if that is indeed the case.

I also find it interesting that we seem to have stumbled on an explanation on what intelligence is, as it is, as you say, constituted by knowledge. I don't quite know how this works, though, as the one thing I know that relates to knowledge, is that I.Q. tests are not designed to test for knowledge-dependent skill. I'm willing to let go of the suspicion that something awkard is going on there. Let's say intelligence is knowledge. How is it that we cannot make dull people smart, simply by handing them all the knowledge that an intelligent man has?


iv)
All this is very interesting, but I have another suggestion in light of the above. What if we would simply say that the ability to reason well enough to be able to study philosophy wasn't part of human nature? Then we would prevent all sorts of mix-ups. Ofcourse, this ability wouldn't be universal, and it would turn out that indeed, not everyone can partake in philosophizing. Which, coincidentally, was my claim.

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« Last Edit: 2006-09-30, 17:48 by Tabun » Logged

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« Reply #25 on: 2006-10-01, 00:29 »

Quote from: Tabun
the last post is mostly metaphysical speculation, I think, and I don't see the connection -- I was not trying to make any claims about the grandure or moral implications of 'inhumanity'
I have the sneaky feeling you might have glossed over what I posted, and thereby missed what I had intended you to catch with the parable.  Trust me when I say it was relevent to the discussion, and I will explain why.

Everything in regards to thought relies on two things - taxonomy, and frame of reference.  What you include or exclude from a descriptor makes up the first part.  The second part determines how you apply the first.  I was demonstrating that if you shift your frame of reference suddenly your descriptor is no longer sufficient to deal with the new frame of reference.  Since language relies on specific descriptors to classify things (nouns) and actions (verbs), you should be able to grasp the temporal limitations I am trying to convey and see how it can apply to thought.  I could use more picturesque imagery instead of temporal if you like.  Consider mountains and mole hills.  A mountain would not seem so large to a giant, nor would a mole hill seem so small to an ant.  But to a man, one is vast, the other tiny, though their size not change at all.

Furthermore, in regards to language and thought, I will add that I am quite capable of thinking in terms of pictures, and smells, feelings, and sounds that do not involve human words.  I consider all of this to be thought, but I do not consider it to be language.  Do birds think?  Of course they do.  Even if you discount me (as I'm sure most people do anyway) people who live with parrots can give you more than enough anecdotal evidence on how parrots can not only conceptualize but also convey thoughts using human words in combinations they did not originally learn.  The same is true with people who have trained gorillas to speak with sign language.  It has been proven they not only understand the signs, they also can express innate feelings and desires using those signs.  If a deaf human can speak with sign language, and a gorilla can speak with the same sign language, and if parrots can use words to express their feelings and desires, then I think you can see the implications of this, as well as how it relates to the human understanding of what thought is.  The inability of man to communicate with his animal bretheren does not mean they cannot think, it simply means a common frame of reference is lacking for complex forms of communication between man and other species.

This next point relies on what I said above in regards to frame of reference, which is why I illustrated it above in the first place.  If you your frame of reference to classify thought is narrowed such as to only those thoughts that are done in a spoken human language, then the error would not lie in thinking in a way that is incongruent with your understanding of thought.  That would be like telling a bird that it cannot fly while watching it soar regardless.  It could be that I am misunderstanding your use of the word "language" through all of this.  If you are including forms of thought beyond structured human languages within your discriptor for "language", then it is a difference of semantics we have encountered, and the scope of my descriptor for "language" is simply incongruent with your frame of reference when applying this term.  It was the potential for gross disparity of frame of reference I had hoped you would catch on to with my previous post.
« Last Edit: 2006-10-01, 00:31 by Phoenix » Logged


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« Reply #26 on: 2006-10-01, 01:21 »

I didn't gloss over the post, but I guess the meaning of it didn't strike me because of distracting hypotheticals. Aside from that, 'frame of reference' isn't working well for me as a way of reasoning. I have only one frame of reference, which is my own. I cannot take an externalist view on things and I cannot see as an ant does. I can imagine other points of view, but I cannot imagine them to make any sense for the purposes of effective justification. That too might be a reason why alluding to a frame of reference didn't catch my attention.


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parrots can not only conceptualize but also convey thoughts using human words in combinations they did not originally learn.

Whether parrots conceptualize or not, is beyond my ability to know (in fact, I have no idea how you would go about 'conceptualizing', and whether I do it or not -- I can assume it, but that does not help me). The second part of the quote is, interestingly, Descartes' first indicator of the difference between man and beast: the ability to form new (meaningful) sentences. Amusingly, he states:
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[..] whereas there is no other animal [than man], however perfect and well-endowed it may be, that can do the like. This does not happen because they lack the necessary organs, for we see that magpies and parrots can utter words as we do, and yet they cannot speak as we do: that is, they cannot show that they are thinking what they are saying." (Discours de la methode, 1637).
So apparantly, the quasi-empirical claims of Descartes are at odds with yours..

If we include instinct and, say, the reaction of plants to the position of the sun in our application of the term "thought", I'm perfectly happy to agree that thought without language is possible.


I think that what you're calling a combination of descriptors and frames of reference, is what I'm simply calling a question of term definitions. As I indicated, the most important aspect of (omni)language, for me, is communication. It is rather cheesy to speak of communicating with yourself, although this could be a by-product of communicating with others. It would be, again, worthless speculation to say that this were the case, ofcourse, but that is not the point. As you say (and to which I have hinted at in my previous post), the thought-language problem would most likely end up in a resolution that is related to (1) what is to be considered thought, and (2) what is to be considered language.

One thing left to turn such a matter of analysing what one intends when one uses a word, is to supply a metaphysical system. For instance, Descartes is forced to exclude anything but the contents of res cogitans from what can be considered thought. Every other thing can be reduced to mechanics, to motion and collision of matter. And the very basis of his division is to be found in his unequalled trust in the simplicity and infallibility of language (which should strike anyone who's read his works as odd, in light of his starting from radical scepticism).

Which brings me back to my starting point: to accept or reject such system, or such trust in language itself, is a 'yay-nay'-fest all by itself.
« Last Edit: 2006-10-01, 01:24 by Tabun » Logged

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« Reply #27 on: 2006-10-01, 03:08 »

Quote from: Tabun
I have only one frame of reference, which is my own.

One does not have to have to observe things through a disparate frame of reference to understand that other frames of reference exist.  You do not have to go to China to know China exists, all you are required to do is to believe the account of those who claim to have been there.  This then is your "yea-nay" situation, if you must see it as thus.  A person either believes them, or does not, unless and until he journeys there himself.  I fail to see any logic in denying the validity of other frames of reference simply because one cannot relate to or comprehend them.

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I cannot take an externalist view on things and I cannot see as an ant does. I can imagine other points of view, but I cannot imagine them to make any sense for the purposes of effective justification. That too might be a reason why alluding to a frame of reference didn't catch my attention.

Then what is the point of any philosophy, or subscribing to any school of thought?  Are not all philosophies other than intrinsic ones a matter of trying to see things from someone else's point of view?  Bollocks that you cannot take an externalist point of view.  I do it all the time.  You simply choose to reject the results of the exercise, whereas I do not.  The same holds true if you accept the words of Descartes as true, and if I reject them.  You are accepting his point of view as providing valid information, whereas I do not.  Yea-nay indeed, but then, understanding is a three-edged sword.

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So apparantly, the quasi-empirical claims of Descartes are at odds with yours..

I do not put Descartes on a pedastal, nor any man.  I am not afraid to say he was wrong.  I do not invalidate my own knowledge simply because one man or another is held in higher or lower esteem by other men.  The esteem of men is irrelevent to me.  One man says this, one man says that, but the truth is always something else.

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If we include instinct and, say, the reaction of plants to the position of the sun in our application of the term "thought", I'm perfectly happy to agree that thought without language is possible.

Now you are introducing artificial constraints and extra variables into the situation that were not part of the original discussion in an attempt to invalidate what I brought up by extending it to irrelevency and absurdity.  A nice try, but it does not address what I stated nor does it solve the problem of thought where spoken word is absent.  You are simply moving the goal posts off the playing field and widening your point of reference beyond the bounds of the previous discussion.  You either accept that thought can occur without spoken human language, or you do not.  If you do not, I would ask why?  Historically such discussions are uncomfortable to humanist thinkers because they profit by keeping man's self-appointed elevation above other creatures intact and unthreatened.  Pride demands it, and also it absolves man, in his own mind, of the moral implications of how he abuses the other forms of life on his world.  I do not know what your thoughts on this are, so I would ask you for a direct and clear answer instead of an evasive one.  It is not my intent to indict you, merely to get a straight answer and know what you think.

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I think that what you're calling a combination of descriptors and frames of reference, is what I'm simply calling a question of term definitions.

Actually you've jumped past the basis of what I suggested.  Linguistically you have a limit to the applicability of a word based on the context in which the word was invented, and also the context in which it is commonly used.  A good example of the latter is your dislike of the word "criminal" when applied to someone who has committed what to you are very petty crimes.  The word itself has a literal definition according to a dictionary, but its applicability is filtered by your thinking.  That then limits the scope of the usefulness of the word when brought into this new context.  Thus the frame of reference, as I referred to it, is this window in which the word is then relevent.  All frames of reference are relative, as Einstein pointed out.  Your frame of reference does not change the definition of the word criminal;  someone who has committed a crime;   but it does alter the scope of where and how that word can be applied.  But, without digressing too far or going too much into linguistic concerns, when I originally spoke of frame of reference I was referring to a temporal frame of reference for example.

Coming circle to your first statement in your reply, that you have only one frame of reference - your own - even that is subject to a larger frame of reference.  You speak, in this discussion, of your present perception as your frame of reference.  But if you think back on your life, you can see how your thinking has changed, and how your views and perceptions and thoughts have changed as well.  Thus, your frame of reference, when thinking of the past, is different than if you reflect on the now.  So it would be different if you were to see your whole life, from beginning to end, at one time as one event.  If you are familiar with String Theory, you might imagine this as seeing yourself from the "fourth dimension" point of view.  This was my original point, that frames of reference are mutable and depending on how one chooses to see things, that determines greatly how he will think about them.

Thus, when I speak of frames of reference, it is not my intent to confuse, but rather it is as simple as looking through a lens.  If the lens is focused wide, you can see a lot of everything, but not necessarily any one thing with precision.  If it is focused narrow, you can see one thing with precision, but not the pattern of the whole.  Where this lens is pointed, and how wide it is focused, or for how long it is aimed at any one thing is analagous to thought, and introspection, and examination.  Simply put, I am alluding to how you think about something as opposed to what it is you are thinking about.  Perhaps my alluding to time in a fourth-dimensional sense in my once removed previous post caused some confusion.  If so, I apologize.  I perceive time a bit differently than most creatures and for me at least the future and past are merely parts of the same thing.[/color]
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« Reply #28 on: 2006-10-01, 09:59 »

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Your trust in Wikipedia is astonishing!
That was so unecessary.
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The application of that knowledge is another matter, which is a prerequisite for using knowledge. Is this what you are saying?
The application of knowledge, obviously, depends on the knowledge a person has. That is obvious, right? (I'm not fully understanding the sentence above, so if you could explain a bit further this sentence, I'd appreciate)
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Also, how does this 'over long periods of time' work? If one holds to darwinism in any form, we see that extensively structured language is certainly not that long present in prehistoric humans.
My post, I believe, was explicit enough. The underline was not referring to the knowledge we have of language, but to basic knowledge we are all born with, such as instinctual knowledge (our instinct responses to certain stimulating factors because we know, from day 1, those factors).
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If I understand you correctly, ignorance cancels human nature out. Is that what you mean? As you say, someone is still human when not sharing in all the properties or faculties that are widely believed to be present. Yet then those minimal faculties are not part of human nature, or, human nature is not universally present, fundamental or essential to being human.
What I said was, and quote:
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All of what you said are things that humans obtain during their lives (knowledge). If we find someone that can't perform any of those things, that doesn't make him/her unhuman, it does make him/her ignorant.
Ignorance does not nullify human nature. What would nullify human nature is the inexistance of the knowledge tha all humans are born with. BUT, such thing is impossible, for even a mentally challenged person has that knowledge. In fact, all humans will have that knowledge until the very end of the race. Why, you ask? Because this knowledge is deep inside our DNA.
Also, let's just eliminate some further controversy. Let's say that, for some reason, human race evolves into something new. In that evolutionary process, the knowledge which all homo sapiens sapiens are born with, is eliminated. Then, human nature would be eliminated, giving place to a new nature specific to that new kind of creature. But this is going way off-topic, so let's resume the topic in question.

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The nature of a human being is what makes it a human being. That is my suggestion for proper usage of the term 'nature' (in this sense). Then, it is impossible for any human being to lack human nature and still be human.
That is correct.
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This knowledge, when grouped, constitutes the so-called "intelligence". Since we are all born with this knowledge
That is nice! I doubt though, again keeping in mind the poor sods that don't seem to have been born with such talents as we have, if that is indeed the case.
I'm an idiot sometimes. I completely forgot to add a few words on what I said in my last post. What I meant was:

This knowledge, when grouped with the knowledge obtained throughout our lives, constitutes the so-called "intelligence".

We all have intelligence from the moment we are born. But, intelligence can be developed with more knowledge.

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What if we would simply say that the ability to reason well enough to be able to study philosophy wasn't part of human nature? Then we would prevent all sorts of mix-ups. Ofcourse, this ability wouldn't be universal, and it would turn out that indeed, not everyone can partake in philosophizing. Which, coincidentally, was my claim.
Thank God ( :] ) we all have the knowledge to question all that surrounds us. For example: when we instinctively assume an aggressive position towards an unknown thing, it's because we are questioning ourselves if this unknown thing is, in fact, hostile or not, and just bo se safe, we assume this aggressive position.

Now, onto Phoenix's post!

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Say he turned a man into a goat. Would the man-turned-goat no longer be human? After all, he is now a goat. But, if upon changing this goat back into a man, he retains all his previous characteristics of when he was human before, what do we call this creature then?
He'd still be a man, for he would still have human nature.
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If, say, a man is born human, spends 50% of his life as a man, and 50% of his life as a goat, what is he?
It depends on what he was when he was born.
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Now on the flip side, if a goat is born, and is turned into a man, is this creature a man, or a goat? If a man is turned into a goat, and dies as a goat, was he man or goat? The same if the goat is turned into a man, and dies as a man, was he goat or man?
You can now deduct my answer to such questions.
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Let's say a man is born in this universe. He lives, he dies, and his soul moves on to the next one and he is made into a new kind of creature by his maker. Let's say this new kind of creature can assume any form it wishes, and has abilities men can only dream of, and can never die. Now, let's step outside of time, and look at his whole existence, from when he was conceived, when he died, and when he became something else across this boundary we call death. What is he? Is he what he began as, or what he ended as? If he lives forever in this new form, do we call him Man still, or do we call him what this new form is? Was he this new form all along, and the shell of man merely like the caterpillar before it sprouts forth as a butterfly? And if man ends at death, as some would think... if beyond death is only void, then death you are, and never were to begin with, and so all of you are nothing since that is how you will end. But, whether to glory or perdition, it matters not to man since man is concerned with temporal things, and so he calls a caterpillar a caterpillar, and a butterfly a butterfly, the living alive, and the dead he calls dead, though they really be the same all through regardless.
OK. metaphysics.
If a man was to reincarnate a butterfly after his death, then his nature would be of a butterfly. Simple as that. Of course that the knowledge that his soul had would still be in his soul, I guess. I can't talk about the afterlife in this situation, simply because I lack of the knowledge to do so.

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What, should man think so highly of himself? Cheat death then if you be gods! The grave will mock you in the end, as will the cremator's flames. Like beasts you slaughter for food, you too will die and all your works swallowed in death. Of what gain is it then to be human over being any other creature? Of what use are lofty thoughts, or being puffed up and saying "behold, I think!" Will death not claim you regardless? Ten million years from now you will be as chaff on the wind, and your civilization will be as a cinder. How then did it matter anything you thought or did?
You talk like all humans thought that way. If fact, many people recognize the fact that humans are not the most superior beings in the Universe. These people, like me, believe in God. These people, like me, know that all of this had a beginning, and it will have an ending. Don't mock these people, like you did in that post.

That took a while to write.
« Last Edit: 2006-10-01, 10:00 by [KruzadeR] » Logged

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« Reply #29 on: 2006-10-01, 13:44 »

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Phoenix:

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I do not put Descartes on a pedastal

I think he was a genius, but I didn't use him as an authority, or to show that you were wrong. I was doing exactly what I've been focusing on, namely: to stress the fact that what seems an elaborate and deep argument boils down to a groundless opinion. A makes an a priori claim, B makes one, and neither can do more than explicate the bias they have. I do not think Descartes was right, especially not in his views on man as a rational animal. Even so,  his mechanistic view was a very important step in the history of thought, in my view.


Thought
Let me be more specific on another point aswell, since you have also explained my bringing in of 'irrelevancies' (the dismissal of which is tied to your frame of reference, if you will) as absurd and besides the point.
And I'd like to keep this human-pride factor out for once, since I don't ascribe to it. In this respect, I have no difficulty removing all kinds hierarchies. Humans at the level of apes, ants, plants and rocks (without this being absurd).

That also explains why they are not extra variables in my view. I'm willing to drop them, though, if that helps. We limit ourselves to all animals, then?


Frames of reference
To me, a definition is a matter of practical categorization. It is no longer the genus plus differentia specifica that was to be considered universal (and thus defeating frames of reference as meaningful) in ancient times. In that sense, I do subscribe to your F.o.R.
But I am not drawing a line between taxonomy and F.o.R.
Using the 'criminal' example, I can perhaps clarify. What you call taxonomy, is what I in that conversation called 'strict, or technical use of the word'. Everyone that matches up to the dictionary definition for 'criminal' is a criminal. Then there was the political and manipulative use of the word, which categorizes and stigmatizes a situation by usage of connotations. My focus was on pragmatics and manipulation.

Here we strike on something that has very much to do with the discussion indeed, and I admit that I was wrong to dismiss the point straight away.
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Linguistically you have a limit to the applicability of a word based on the context in which the word was invented
Here, we disagree. I do not think the applicability of a word is static. Its usage (pragmatics) evolves through time. Connotations and demographics (for instance) all have their effects on the usage of words. I don't subscribe to explaining all the different uses of a word by an F.o.R.-theory though. The context is variable, as is the 'official' reading, the only thing to remain constant for longer times, is the actual word itself.

That being said, if we might put our differences on that aside, I will address the point you are making with use of F.o.R. For I am very willing to say that--if we define thought to include any kind of communicative process between living creatures--animals think too, regardless of F.o.R. What I think it boils down to, is what is included in the accepted definition (call it F.o.R., if that helps) for this discussion. Can we replace thought here with 'feeling of pain'? Can we replace it by 'having an image of fish'? If so, then we have a defined usage within this context. That is no problem for me at all.

I have no idea how we can know anything about the presence or absense

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So it would be different if you were to see your whole life, from beginning to end, at one time as one event.
That, however, is taking it one step further. This no longer is simply speaking of contexts and the usage of words in actuality, but a hypothetical 'higher level'. How do you roll all of your life into one? What would be your method of abstracting from the context, the F.o.R. of the present moment? This is what I cannot accept, but I don't think it has to do with F.o.R. as you used it earlier (differing uses for words in differing contexts), but that it has to do with points of view.

Point of view
My intention was not to jump over your stance on P.o.V., but to reject it. You choose to believe taking an externalist point of view is helpful and valid in argumentation. That is fine. I can use it, my charged dismissal of it aside, just like I can use multiple-worlds logic or the like. The point here was that I don't have any basis for assuming such thought experiments do anything to aid my arguments at all. Language being central to this thread, it is a great example of something I cannot shake off when describing the world (or a possible world, for that matter), from a different perspective or point of view. If I take 'a step back' and imagine myself to be observing the course of my life and the ways my thought changes (or in all the ways the thought of parrots works, and suchlike), I am allowing myself insights that are grounded in speculation. That is fine, and when applied in coherentist logical consistency you might give a logical proof for the validity of an argument. But the language, logics (and with it the results of that) are bound to an internalist position.
Ofcourse I can take an externalist view. Ofcourse I can take a view in which I am Mickey Mouse flying through the storms of Jupiter. If you can tell me what your method is in using them, and what your demarcation is to accept a God's eye view, and reject a Mickey-Mouse eye view (assuming you do, and consider me to be dragging in absurdities Slipgate - Wink), please explain.

Let me, by the way, clear up another tangle that I seem to have placed myself into. I did not intend to say that I cannot take differend F.o.R's in the sense I've accepted above, for obviously, I can use words in many different ways. I was talking about P.o.V., so I hope we can somehow work out a distinction and keep the two separated. ;] If the two are inextracably  tied up, we're dealing with a remarkable problem indeed, but I don't think that's the case.

So if I understand your last paragraph as an explanation of F.o.R. in this sense, it is like .. say, discussing 'games', then zooming out and finding that we weren't talking about computer games, but that we were including all sorts of games of life. The usage of the word, and the context in which it is used has changed (I hesitate to say 'broadened', but it might be applicable here).
If, however, I understand it as an explanation of P.o.V., it is like we can change our actual position from internalist close-up to internalist overview to externalist, just like zooming with a lens.
In the first case, something is actually happening, namely the usage of a word changes, which has effects on the success of your communication, among other things. In the second case, I don't see how any connection with actuality and reality is managed, without falling back to admitting that one does not take an externalist position, but that one, while imagining to zoom out, is stuck to the same old internalist position while imagining it to be externalist.


Philosophy
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Are not all philosophies other than intrinsic ones a matter of trying to see things from someone else's point of view?

Actually, no. A lot of them incorporate it, but the most interesting and provoking philosophy addresses the very problem of externalism, holism, idealism.

Take Kant's Kritik der Reine Vernunft for instance. The title is begging the question, and in that sense it is indicative of trying to look at the 'eye' of reason, with the 'eye' of reason. This, however, does not mean he takes on some point of view that he thinks he can somehow assume. He does the opposite: he indicates that the world as it would be, if seen from an externalist position, is not accessible to us. So, instead of accepting this and trying to see if he could have a little fun with imagining to be able to do it anyway (as indeed a few other philosophers have done), Kant takes a different approach and investigates the prerequisites for saying anything about the world (he compares this change of approaching a problem with Copernicus' earth-centered approach). In so doing, he is attempting to give philosophy the sicheren Gang einen Wissenschaft, and make it, like science, investigate nature on its own terms.  It doesn't work, ofcourse, but it is a cool attempt nonetheless.
(I'm not using Kant as some kind of authority (I don't agree with Kant either Slipgate - Wink), it's just an example of philosophy trying to save itself -- but not by taking an externalist viewpoint)

Another example can be found in Hilary Putnam, who has flipflopped more than Kerry in his opinions of reality. He's at one point given some very interesting arguments against the possibility of an externalist position (for instance, his well known brains-in-a-vat article -- which, interestingly, is tied up with language as deliciously as our discussion here).


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Kruzader:

The argument
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What would nullify human nature is the inexistance of the knowledge tha all humans are born with. BUT, such thing is impossible, for even a mentally challenged person has that knowledge. In fact, all humans will have that knowledge until the very end of the race. Why, you ask? Because this knowledge is deep inside our DNA.

The first sentence is crucial: that is my very point. Humans are not humans if they lack human nature (as I said, tautological by definition).

(a) My initial claim: I know people (humans) who are, for all intents and purposes, unable to reason succesfully.*

(b) My further claim: Not all humans are able to study and practise philosophy.

? Your claim was: the ability to study and practise philosophy (or ask philosophical questions, if you will), is part of the human nature. (Correct me if I'm wrong)

(d) Furthermore, humans cannot be humans without human nature. (You agreed with this in your previous post, if I'm not mistaken)**

Where (b) follows from (a). If ? is true, then it is, by (d), in direct contradiction with (b). My point is to dismiss ?.

*I can't look inside of their skulls to see if their instinctive 'knowledge' is sitting there (and neither can you), but they aren't making any signs that indicate so. I consider them to be humans, but I don't consider them to be able to ask any question whatsoever.

**Human nature is not something you can shed and take up at random: it goes together with being human. So, if it were possible that one were born with a complete nature, then lose it at some point, the subject would cease to be human by definition, at that point. That is fine, but it means that if the ability to philosophize is part of human nature, it does not matter whether one was born with it, if things have in this respect changed since. Nor do I think that all humans born with that ability, but that is another matter.


Intelligence

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This knowledge, when grouped with the knowledge obtained throughout our lives, constitutes the so-called "intelligence".
We all have intelligence from the moment we are born.

So, we have (a limited, specific selection of) knowledge when we are born, if I understand you correctly.

Now we come to my initial point again. I do not know, nor can I in any way other than assuming in speculation, what is inside the head of a new-born baby in terms of knowledge. If I open the skull, I see some goo, and I can probably experiment on the reflexes. But until the very moment that the baby utters his first comprehensible sentences, I have no access whatsoever to his thought. You say that babies are capable of philosophy, in a sense--they already have the only requisites that they'll ever need for it, for they are human. I could accept this, but I don't have a method to verify this. If I research the instincts of a human baby, I do not find any difference with the instincts of a kitten. The sounds babies make until they speak full sentences, are not really different from those of many (young) animals. I may well assume that most or all animals are capable of asking philosophical questions, or.. perhaps even that they are human too..


Human nature
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Then, human nature would be eliminated, giving place to a new nature specific to that new kind of creature.

I don't know if it's off-topic, but it is interesting. I have a feeling that these creatures will still call themselves humans, as they evolve. If it is a gradual process, it also becomes very interesting when the actual shift occurs. It doesn't make much difference for the initial argument though. I personally don't see controversy in it, but it's fun stuff to incorporate.

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« Last Edit: 2006-10-01, 21:05 by Phoenix » Logged

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« Reply #30 on: 2006-10-01, 23:36 »

Quote from: Tabun
I was doing exactly what I've been focusing on, namely: to stress the fact that what seems an elaborate and deep argument boils down to a groundless opinion.
In that I will of course disagree because from my own point of view opinions are not groundless.  They are formed for one reason or another.  I think what you would be taking issue with the basis of the opinion in that case, or the logic behind it, but that's a whole other path we could explore.  

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I do not think Descartes was right
I never said you thought he was, nor that you were saying I was wrong.  I simply laid out my thoughts for you to see and used the opportunity to express something.

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I do not think the applicability of a word is static. Its usage (pragmatics) evolves through time.

Not if the word is no longer relevent because the context has changed.  Without context and a common frame of reference a word has no meaning.  A nuclear engineer will use words that mean nothing to a botanist, and vice-versa.  Without the context of nuclear science, or botany, what do the words matter?  Words only have meaning so long as what they represent can be related.  Words, after all, are nothing but symbols to represent objects, actions, or traits of either.  One can do this just as readily with pictograms or heiroglyphs, or those cute little European symbols for hospitals and food and shelter that they put on road signs.  Any idiot can understand those, which is why they're considered universal.  They're not words, or a written language per se, but they do convey a meaning that can be grasped by most any human.

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My intention was not to jump over your stance on P.o.V., but to reject it.
Fair enough, at least now I know what page you're on.

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You choose to believe taking an externalist point of view is helpful and valid in argumentation.
Wait, why are you assuming I am relating this to argumentation?  I do not believe arguing leads to enlightenment.  I believe exploration and observation are much more valuable.  That leads me to this:

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If you can tell me what your method is in using them, and what your demarcation is to accept a God's eye view, and reject a Mickey-Mouse eye view (assuming you do, and consider me to be dragging in absurdities Slipgate - Wink), please explain.

Ever hear of the term "projection"?  It's when one uses their own actions or traits as a template to predict or determine the actions, traits, and/or intentions of something else.  The fact that you limit yourself to an internalist point of view does not mean all other beings must behave within those same parameters.  The is an assumption on your part, and a dangerous one to make as it is in contradiction to the internalist premise.  It could be expected that you "project" this assumption onto others when you consider them since it is a common human behavior and rooted in a very simple animal logic:  "If I do X, someone else probably does X as well and for the same reason".  That is of course a survival mechanism since being able to predict and extrapolate can help one avoid dangers not yet encountered.  In that sense, when projecting your internalist stance and extending it to others, you are most definitely acting in an externalist mode by extending an innate tendency and applying it to someone besides yourself - even if you do not realize this as being externalist.  A hightened sense of self-awareness could tip one off to this tendency and include it as a variable in one's thinking.  At that point, you come closer to grasping the paradox... or else going insane from it.

Accepting a God's eye view is not something I am capable of doing as I am not God.  However, I can easily accept a Phoenix-eye view.  Mickey Mouse would have trouble doing that.  The rat, after all, could do much better if it could see the maze from above, but it cannot and so it cannot see the complete maze.  If I fly above the maze, I cannot see the maze from within, but I can see where the rat is going and what lies ahead of it, and what is around it and what might happen to it.  Now if I can communicate with the rat, and it with me, I can give it information it cannot gain of its own accord from within the maze, and it can give me information about its perspective from within that I could not glean from above.  This provides us both with a more complete picture of reality by supplying information to each other that we did not have from our own perspectives.  Now you could say that your perspective is still internalist regardless of receiving this external information.  The problem is, unlike the rat, I can choose to fly into or out of the maze.  I can fly, the rat cannot.  That means I can easily see the maze from the rat's point of view, however the rat cannot see it from my point of view at all.  It does not make me better or worse than the rat, but it does mean I can do something the rat cannot do.  There is an exception to this.  I could lift the rat and carry it out of the maze, whereby then the rat could see the whole maze as I do.  The condition is that the rat would have to allow me to carry it.  Before that could happen, it requires the rat to decide if it will trust me, which is, as you would say, a leap of faith.  Without going into what you would call metaphysical concerns, or dragging spirituality into this, which you dislike, I cannot relate more than this effectively.  If you reject what I say based on this limited and, I would say, grossly inadequate illustration of what I'm thinking but having difficulty finding an adequate mechanism to convey, I will certainly be understanding.

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I was talking about P.o.V., so I hope we can somehow work out a distinction and keep the two separated. ;] If the two are inextracably  tied up, we're dealing with a remarkable problem indeed, but I don't think that's the case.

Well actually I did intend that point of view and frame of reference to be inextracably tied up...  How can they not be?

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In the second case, I don't see how any connection with actuality and reality is managed, without falling back to admitting that one does not take an externalist position, but that one, while imagining to zoom out, is stuck to the same old internalist position while imagining it to be externalist.

But for accepting the internalist perspective argument that you put forth, I must first accept a condition - that the perspective itself is valid.  I do not accept this condition because I have had, in the past and currently, access to perspectives not my own, and I also know of situations where this can and does occur with other creatures.  The problem is, you would have to accept the ideas of telepathy and empathy as well as spiritual revelation as being valid before being able to accept my accounting as valid.  This puts us back to dealing with the trust and acceptence constraint, and squarely in a yea-nay situation.  I cannot change my position because I have information that would invalidate the change;  I would be lying to myself.  You cannot accept my position because you lack the necessary information that would validate a change in yours.  I think you can see the problem there.[/color] Slipgate - Smile
« Last Edit: 2006-10-01, 23:40 by Phoenix » Logged


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« Reply #31 on: 2006-10-02, 20:19 »

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Words, after all, are nothing but symbols to represent objects, actions, or traits of either. One can do this just as readily with pictograms or heiroglyphs, or those cute little European symbols for hospitals and food and shelter that they put on road signs. Any idiot can understand those, which is why they're considered universal.

Aside from the interesting question if anyone could make sense of hieroglyphs without the evolution of their communicative (and in that sense, (omni)linguistic) history, I'm not sure what the status of the question of words as symbols is. This would indicate some kind of bond between object and word, and I do subscribe to there being a metaphysical bond between the two. Interesting though this statement, and my unquestionably doubtful reaction to it, are, I think what follows is more central to the problem.


Externalism vs Internalism
I never stated that internalism (in the sense of projection) is a road to certainty. The point I was trying to make is that it is the only road. You cannot escape it. In trying to erase yourself or taking a 'broader' view, you attempt to look at the backside of your own eyeballs. Or, at least far enough back to see what's happening behind them.

Maybe I should best compare it with a basic, everyday 'empirical' approach to a problem, versus the example that you provide: projection. In the former, you accept only what you can detect from your P.o.V. as valid and verifyable. Statements such as "Person X has a contorted look on his face" or even, while remaining careful, "Person X appears to be in pain". It is easy to see that to achieve the second phrasing by projection, but in remaining careful you can also see that this is still factual from your P.o.V.. Projection would go one step further and allow "Person X is in pain".
My claim is that trying to take an externalist position is the same as trying to pass of this last description as a factual observation, and not as speculation.

Opinion
This brings me to opinion. Ofcourse I agree that it has its origins in every instance. My qualm with it lies in the fact that, origins or no, opinion lacks argumentative power. I am of the opinion that killing infidels is a bad thing, while a mr. M. Alamajihad is of the opinion that the opposite is the case. As far as I'm concerned, the discussion ends there. I am not saying that I am not interested in the origins of his opinion, but only if he is willing to upgrade his opinion to an admittedly and openly grounded claim can we have a discussion (and vice versa). In short, the moment when opinion is shown to be (well) grounded, it loses the predicate 'opinion', in my view.
Discussion that is in part the seeking of grounds (mutual or no) has my interest, in the context of this thread. If you are not interested in arguing and argumentation (without wanting to accept the negative connotations these terms have adopted throughout time), then discussion ends at that point.

That said, I am always interested in observation, hypothesis, thought-experiment and --whatever it may be, if anything--enlightenment. But I can work on that while listening to beautiful buddhist zen-inspired music, while I feel that discussions add a certain something to the process, if argumentative force is considered to play role. (For now, leaving aside the question whether such force is ever to escape and repel significant sceptic attack.)

Metaphysics
Let me also clarify another word I use frequently. 'Metaphysics' does not generally carry spiritual or religious connotations for me (Just as the word 'God' does not, when I read Spinoza's Ethica). Metaphysics is, very bluntly and generally put, the inference to that which lies over and beyond the realm of experience. Experience here should be read in light of the 'basic empirical approach to every day life' that I introduced earlier in this post. For instance, I would call it a metaphysical assumption to state that, because Mr. X's face is contorted, that he is in pain. Here, it is important to add that I only consider this to be case iff by "X is in pain" we don't simply mean that he appears to be in pain, or that it is simply a way to describe face-contortion, or that it is only pragmatics, to make people go out and assist Mr. X, or the like. More examples pop up when one uses the phrasing "There must be such-and-such...", such as in "There must be properties of objects that exist independent of our observation", or "It can only be that there is a redness that all red objects share", and so on.
I do not dislike spirituality outside of philosophical discussion if it focuses on, or reserves a role for, argumentation. I don't mind it at all in daily conversation at the mall, for instance, nor in a discussion of Eriugena's or Eckhart's mysticism.


Quote
I think you can see the problem there.
I sure hope so, otherwise I don't know why I started all this in the first place. :]

My view in regards to this problem is as follows. It is possible to have a purposeful argumentative discussion if there is sufficient common ground. Such a common ground that I often accept a basic standing point in situations that require critical analysis, but not utter nihilism (lack of any ori?ntation, as I have talked with you about some time ago--not 'nihilism' in the folk-sense of the word, for instance like in The Big Lebowski ;]). This basic standing point is the basic empirical limited view, in combination with critical and honest use of language, falling back on etymology where this helps for matters of definition. A radical sceptic can easily question the grounds for this view, and in discussing those, we would end in aporia. Another possible view, but one which does not work for me, is a more 'simplicity'-oriented view, wherein all is as it seems, or in which intuition overrules all else, for instance (here, the intuition that "Mr. X really is in pain" is verified and true, would overrule the empirical "We cannot see inside his mind"-stance).

Since we have appeared to have reached precisely such a point where further exploration results in insolubility, this is where it ends.



This might also be a good time for me to make explicit what has been implicit, namely:
that I, if forced to make an intuitive guess, would allow that thought is possible without structural language. In my reasoning, thought, I cannot escape the fact that 'thought' is a word that is part of prosodical history and language, and that it is logically bound with language and its limits, as well as with the possibility to verify its veridicality.
« Last Edit: 2006-10-02, 20:23 by Tabun » Logged

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« Reply #32 on: 2006-10-03, 17:06 »

Quote from: Tabun
I never stated that internalism (in the sense of projection) is a road to certainty. The point I was trying to make is that it is the only road.
Here you are repeating an unprovable assertion, for which I can only surmise you are either incapable of grasping and/or accepting paradox, or else you simply missed or else ignored my point.  If you're aware of this fact - that if internalism be true, as you are asserting, that it is impossible for you to ever prove it because of the limitations inherent with internalism - then you have actually helped me to understand why it is you subscribe to a nihilistic view if nothing else.  However, it is an assertion and a view that I can and must categorically reject for reasons I have already expressed.  The fact that you make such a concrete assertion - that internalism is the "only road" - I find quite striking.  In this you are attempting to dictate terms to everything else of how they must function, whilst simultaneously asserting it is impossible to ever truly know how they function, whilst also simultaneously excluding the possibility of any other condition being true... and you're OK with that?  The logic of this I find entirely circular and contradictory.  I also thought you didn't deal in absolutes... Doom - Huh?

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here, the intuition that "Mr. X really is in pain" is verified and true, would overrule the empirical "We cannot see inside his mind"-stance

Which would require you to change your thinking about empiricism and internalism because then it would prove this thinking to be in error.  The question is, can you accept that possibility, or can you not?[/color]
« Last Edit: 2006-10-03, 17:07 by Phoenix » Logged


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« Reply #33 on: 2006-10-03, 17:59 »


Quote
The point I was trying to make is that it is the only road.

I thought it would be clear by now that such apparant absolutisms, coming from me, in this thread, are to be read from the standpoint I have (while remaining, on a meta-level, agnostic and aware of uncertainty). I guess I will have to, again, tread carefully, as apparently I allow doubts about my doubtful nature.

Logic only works for me (and the above counts for this) when working within a framework (not an externalist viewpoint) of accepted basic assumptions. This framework I have explained. I can imagine a world in which A is not-A. I can imagine intuition being a direct connection with a transcendent truth. And so on and so forth. But not within the chosen framework.

In connection with my treatment of internalism and externalism, this means that there is a coherent attack on externalism that avoids metaphysics (in my definition), that as a whole cannot be further grounded. That is all. What, in return, I find surprising, is (aside from the fact that you still try to read absolutism and certainty in any of my posts :]) that, while refering to my inability to grasp paradox, you seem to fail to grasp it in my message. :]

For the second quotation is one that stands in context to a focus on intuition, and throwing out pretty much all else. The point of which is: from a practical (not a certain, not an absolutist) stance, allowing for minimal metaphysics and focusing on empirical grounds, I have made claims (This is the every day approach that allows me to answer "yes." to the question "want some coffee?", instead of "how would I know? what is coffee? how much of it? etc.)

The alternative is to say "anything goes" (which, as I have stressed many times, is fine by me). All options are open. Logic can be anything from a darwinistic epiphenomenon to a higher message from Zeus. Externalism can be coherent with logic, there can be mind-body dualism, we might all be no more than matter condensed to a slow vibration, radical elipsism might be the only valid outlook, and so on. That, like any other form of philosophical nihilism, is impractical. I can hold true to my efforts to experience that to the fullest, but I cannot combine it with typing 'about' something. If anything, an apparant contradiction or a paradox would assist my position, as well as in inability to express it understandably.


In that light, if your question is whether I accept the possibility of the framework being invalid, ofcourse I do. Can you see the same possibilty, reversed, for the coherentist argument against externalism as well as the nihilist position?
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« Reply #34 on: 2006-10-03, 23:14 »

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I thought it would be clear by now that such apparant absolutisms, coming from me, in this thread, are to be read from the standpoint I have.
You made a declaration and I took it at face value.  I don't really see why that's my fault. Slipgate - Exhausted

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Logic only works for me (and the above counts for this) when working within a framework (not an externalist viewpoint) of accepted basic assumptions.
That's just reiterates the problem I mentioned before, and I'm afraid I'm going to begin repeating myself.  If evidence were offered at some point to contradict the assumption, you could just move the goal post, as I believe you are trying to do now, by falling back on the claim of perpetual mutability.

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What, in return, I find surprising, is (aside from the fact that you still try to read absolutism and certainty in any of my posts :]) that, while refering to my inability to grasp paradox, you seem to fail to grasp it in my message. :]
If I failed to grasp it, I could not point it out now could I?  I wanted to see if you saw it for yourself.  I would say that the implications of your accepting of a self-acknowledged, self-contradicting logic are astounding.

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If anything, an apparant contradiction or a paradox would assist my position, as well as in inability to express it understandably.
Which leads me all the way back to what I said in this post that you disagreed with:

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Something so simple to me, yet cannot be described or expressed to anyone else. You would have to be able to call and sing, and feel and know it intrinsically. It is a primal thing, something that transcends languages of man and is purely animal, purely Phoenix.[/color]
If anything your internalistic standpoint would mean you understand exactly what I said because your own inner core is also inexpressable to me in a manner I could understand.  But the paradox here is that  without having expressed it, I already do understand it precisely because it cannot be expressed.  Oh, what a tangled web is woven. Slipgate - Wink

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Can you see the same possibilty, reversed, for the coherentist argument against externalism as well as the nihilist position?
Of course I can, but you must remember, I deal in absolutes as well as an infinity of possibilities.  Can you accept that little paradox?
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« Reply #35 on: 2006-10-04, 00:57 »

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I already do understand it precisely because it cannot be expressed

I think we have many times agreed to disagree on exactly the account that pops up here, so maybe it should  be familiar. On that note, I have to again stress that I've never intended to claim certainty, just to deny certainty (in a self-aware paradoxical position of appearing to be certain about uncertainty -- perhaps a bit like being tolerant seems like intolerance of intolerance).



I shall try again, as I don't agree with your claims about me contradicting myself, and see no other way to work it out than by painting a whole and better picture. Here's another attempt to sketch the general picture that I've been working up to.


I take a basic position in every day life, for pragmatic reasons. This is the basic outlook that I use to stay alive, to remain able to converse with others, and so on. It is ofcourse not the same kind of 'using' as wearing a pair of trousers, since I cannot control it fully (it may well be that it controls me, for the most part). I can, however, allow myself to use it to be able to reason, in the following sense:
I cannot give grounds for allowing the principle of non-contradiction to be true. It even seems to be incorrectly expressible, as "a or ^a" shows two different "a"'s, and the supposed shared identity of those I cannot express or understand. However, I allow myself to accept it, and along with it a minimal set of logical laws and uses of language, and so forth. If I would not, I would go (more) insane, could not keep myself alive and could not communicate succesfully with anyone.

The choice to accept, limit or uphold such a position is itself not a matter of absolute conviction: it could happen to me that at some point, I lose my true agnostic outlook, and refuse to question it. I'm not claiming infallibility here, but I strive to keep my choice in this as clear as I can keep it, to and for myself.

Underneath it, metaphorically speaking, lies groundlessness. Endless regress, inability to provide proofs, inability to express (or at least communicate) the limits of language, and so on. This is what I referred to as the 'lack of orientation'. There is no up or down, no 'up' or 'down'. Without all orientation, there is no meaning, no rules of logic (no possibility of consistency or contradiction), no means of communication, no sense of judgement, and so forth. Obviously, a big part of the paradox (or the collection of paradoxes related to it, and I have a hunch we are both at least on some occasions confused about which one the other (tries to) speak(s) of..). This goes, for lack of ways to describe it, beyond .. well, anything. I cannot believe in it, because belief is meaningless in it, I cannot put it at the same level, or compare it with the basic position I describe above, for it does not have any point of direction or orientation to allow for comparison.
I don't mind calling that 'simple' or 'complex', to be honest, since neither word applies. That said, I have no idea if that is the unexpressible thing that you refer to, and obviously I'm fairly sure I have failed utterly to refer (succesfully) to it.

Hopefully it will now be clear that when I make a claim, I do it from this basic position. Within the position it has 'relative absolutism', perhaps somewhat like a house firmly planted on the soil of an island floating in a chaotic sea. If I contradict myself in the logic that I accept from this basic position, I admit fault (and I do regularly slip up, and, where pragmatic, accept the consequences--In court I would not be found refuting laws of logic).
When it comes to matters that I have no pragmatical reason for accepting (such as the truth or falsehood of any religion, the existence or inexistence of immaterial mind(s) or qualia, and so forth), I suspend judgement and keep it purposedly out of the basic position, as best I can. I should also stress here that with 'pragmatical' I do not accept the connotations of 'cold calculation' or 'heartlessness' and the like. Emotions, love, and the like still play a role in what I currently call my basic position.

That said, it is unusual for me to be caught making a claim too boldy, even in light of this. I admit it annoys me when that happens, but I guess it can't be escaped; every drunkard is sober once in a while.


Now, to apply all this to the matter of externalism vs. interalism: when trying to express whatever the equivalent of 'possibility' is in nihilistic lack of orientation, I hazard to say that sure, anything is possible. It may also be that there is no time, and that all there 'is', is an externalist position for us, that is mistaken to be internalist and spatio-temporal. Ofcourse I'm allowing for the possibility (and paradoxically, for the inexistence of such possibilities).

The above is all bollocks ofcourse, since it is an attempt to express something I don't think it can express -- but enough about that. From the basic position, matters are different. Allowing logic and basic empirical 'factuals', I come to the conclusion that the validity of externalism (or more precisely, the possibility of proving externalism to be a means of valid inference) is incoherent with the logic that I accept, and thus false.


Am I now contradicting myself? I would allow that, if I am going in against the laws that I have accepted in the basic position, when reasoning within it. Don't get me wrong, I don't simply hop 'out' of the basic position when it suits me, or change (insofar as I am actually able to) the laws of logic that lead to contradictory conclusions. I don't think I even stray from any of the commonly accepted 'canons of logic', for instance. Not ever intentionally, anyway. So, if you can point out the contradiction in the sense of there being an incoherent claim as part of the basic position that I'm trying to keep coherent, point it out. It would help me very much indeed, since I would probably (try to) adjust the whole to be more coherent, and thus, more practical and perhaps less prone to other inconsistencies.

If, however, you detect contradiction between my admittedly flawed expressions of the 'nihilism' I've described and my 'basic-position' claims, then wonder no further. There are bound to be. In fact, there cannot be and there must be, .. etc.


I don't think I've ever fully attempted to put this in words. Perhaps I should not have allowed it to be put up so rashly, ill-worded and vulnerable. But hey, there it stands. If this does not convey adequately what it tells me when I read it back, I will hold off on further attempts, until perhaps I have learned more, or found better words or metaphors.
« Last Edit: 2006-10-04, 01:06 by Tabun » Logged

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« Reply #36 on: 2006-10-04, 02:35 »

I wouldn't say this has helped me to understand what I spoke of above (the unexpressable).  As I had said before, I believe I already do, even if you disagree, which is alright.  It does, however, help me to understand where your mind is and why.  It gives me insight into your thinking, though I cannot subscribe to it nor adopt it.

I don't really think I can add to or subtract from what you've said above, as from my perspective, you are being as forthright as you can be, and can allow yourself to be considering the degree of uncertainty with which you proceed from.  I will, however, take the opportunity to make a bit of a jab at this statement:

Quote from: Tabun
Within the position it has 'relative absolutism', perhaps somewhat like a house firmly planted on the soil of an island floating in a chaotic sea.

You are, I think, familiar with a bible passage concerning building one's house on the sand, as opposed to building it on a rock? Slipgate - Wink

My thinking is quite different.  As I said, I deal in absolutes.  If you are interested in me laying out this perspective, I might be able to try to do so after some sleep, but not right now as one thing I am certain of is that I am tired and in need of rest.  If you are uninterested, then I am not offended, and shall say no more unless you ask it of me.[/color]
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« Reply #37 on: 2006-10-04, 09:44 »

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You are, I think, familiar with a bible passage concerning building one's house on the sand, as opposed to building it on a rock?

Hehe, I have seen it before. My only alternative right now is not to have any house at all. To build it is to build it without knowing whether rock is not sand and/or the other way around. Ehr, I guess that is about as far as the metaphor went..


I am interested. By all means, present your perspective.
« Last Edit: 2006-10-04, 09:45 by Tabun » Logged

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« Reply #38 on: 2006-10-04, 17:48 »

Quot homines, tot sentitae, right?
An interesting debate this continues to be.
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« Reply #39 on: 2006-10-05, 05:19 »

Very well then.  I will lay out what I think cover the most basic points as it pertains to this discussion.  I will need time to organize it and condense it, as I've never really committed any of my understanding to writing in this manner.
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